Masque and Mirror May 8 @ 8:05pm
Another Grammatical Error.
"None of your friends have this card".

Should be,

"None of your friends has this card".

I'm not usually one to correct others but you are businesspeople, so it helps to look professional! :P
Showing 1-15 of 124 comments
< >
Fork_Q2 May 8 @ 8:07pm 
How did I not notice this before?
Gus the Crocodile May 8 @ 9:35pm 
Eh, first one sounds much more natural to me. I see the "none is singular" angle, but "none of your friends" is in some sense a description of a group, which I suspect is why "have" sounds better to me.
Masque and Mirror May 8 @ 9:48pm 
None and all aren't symmetrical in that way, because 'none' is singular, always, because it is a contraction of 'not one'; 'not one of your friends'. I am not sure what you do if 'all' is used in the singular, but that would be an odd usage anyway.
Masque and Mirror May 8 @ 9:51pm 
I'm not sure exactly what being 'opposite' means or matters here, it may well be the opposite, but it doesn't behave in the same way. The word 'none' is a contraction like 'don't' or 'I'm'; look it up.
Masque and Mirror May 8 @ 9:59pm 
It's not a big deal. It is a common mistake, but it certainly is incorrect, technically. I wouldn't point it out to anyone but a professional normally.
Masque and Mirror May 8 @ 10:15pm 
What are you referring to in that phrase? The fact that 'they' can refer to a single person?

And I think you mean 'it's'. XD
Masque and Mirror May 8 @ 10:21pm 
Yes, that makes sense. English has two meanings for 'they' which must be confusing! 'None' still works as I described, though, because it is a contraction of 'not one'. If your sentence doesn't make sense with 'not one' substituted for 'none', then it is wrong.
Masque and Mirror May 8 @ 10:27pm 
That's good. Going by standard English rules, you're wrong, but hey; usage is usage. At least you're getting it right, even if it is for the wrong reason XD
Saint Jimmy May 9 @ 4:37am 
None can refer to the plural 'not any', In this case I believe the first to be correct.
presto668 May 9 @ 10:22am 
Originally posted by Masque and Mirror:
None and all aren't symmetrical in that way, because 'none' is singular, always
No, it isn't.

http://dictionary.reference.com/help/faq/language/g11.html

TirithRR May 9 @ 10:40am 
Originally posted by presto668:
Originally posted by Masque and Mirror:
None and all aren't symmetrical in that way, because 'none' is singular, always
No, it isn't.

http://dictionary.reference.com/help/faq/language/g11.html

So, if your meaning is 'none of them', treat the word as plural; if it is 'none of it', treat it as singular.

Seems pretty clear to me. "None of your friends have this card." is a correct usage.
GenPattonBR May 9 @ 11:33am 
"None (...) have (...) " is correct.

Azza ☠ May 9 @ 11:57am 
Arr gammer nazis!!! I failed english classes and my teacher hated me.

However, seriously...

"Has" is the singular, indicating 'one'...

A group of friends is not, but the single card is. Only "one" is singular. Therefore you have the confusion, it depends on the subject. None can be used in formal writing with either a singular or a plural verb depending on context (which in this case is the group of friends).

Therefore...

"None of your friends have this card".
or
"None of them has this card."
or
"No one has this card."

Would be actually correct. In order to use 'has', the sentence must be reworded to bring the focus on the single card, rather than the group of friends. Hope that makes sense?
Last edited by Azza ☠; May 9 @ 12:01pm
Dellicious May 9 @ 12:31pm 
GAMMER NERDS
Fork_Q2 May 9 @ 12:31pm 
Originally posted by CM Dell:
GAMMER NERDS

Beta than Alpha Nerds.
Showing 1-15 of 124 comments
< >
Per page: 15 30 50
Date Posted: May 8 @ 8:05pm
Posts: 124